Is it fair that if a US investor/company wants to go abroad and do business in that country that the US investor/company cannot own 100 percent of the foreign entity but yet if a foreign investor/company wants to come to the US they can generally own 100 percent of the US entity here?

Is it fair that if a US investor/company wants to go abroad and do business in that country that the US investor/company cannot own 100 percent of the foreign entity but yet if a foreign investor/company wants to come to the US they can generally own 100 percent of the US entity here? For example, Budweiser, Coors, Miller, and Smithfield foods along with many others are not US owned entities. Elaborate.
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